The statement $\left ( ¬p \right ) \Rightarrow \left ( ¬q \right )$ is logically equivalent to which of the statements below?
Ref:
Option D.
$(\sim p) \Rightarrow (\sim q)$
$\sim (\sim p) \vee (\sim q)$
$p \vee (\sim q)$
$ (\sim q) \vee p$ ----------------> III is True
$q \Rightarrow p$ -----------------> II is True
we know that p→ q is equivalent to ~p v q
similarly ~p→~q will be equivalent to p v ~q (III)
and implication is equivalent to contrapositive , ~p→~q will be equivalent to q→ p (II)
answer: Both II & III ,OPTION D
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