GATE CSE 2016 Set 1 | Question: 29

Question

Consider the following experiment.

Step 1. Flip a fair coin twice.

Step 2. If the outcomes are (TAILS, HEADS) then output $Y$ and stop.

Step 3. If the outcomes are either (HEADS, HEADS) or (HEADS, TAILS), then output $N$ and stop.

Step 4. If the outcomes are (TAILS, TAILS), then go to Step $1.$

The probability that the output of the experiment is $Y$ is (up to two decimal places)

Comments

A much easier way for this would be:

Let $W = \text{We get a Y}$.
Let $D = \text{The game is decided after the first two tosses}$

The crucial observation here is that if we don't finish after the first two tosses, we are facing the same game again.

Therefore, $P(W/D^c) = P(W) \implies P(W/D) = P(W)$.

This gives us that $P(W) = P(W  \cap D)/P(D) = \frac{1/4}{1/4 + 2/4} = 0.33$

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Sample Space = $\{Y,N\}$

Therefore, $P(Y)+P(N)=1$

 

Number of favourable cases for $P(Y)=1$

Number of favourable cases for $P(N)=2$

Total cases = $3$ (NOT 4)

 

So, $P(Y)=1/3=0.33$

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is this a Markov chain?

Answer 1

Answer is ${0.33}$

$1^{st}$ time it is ${0.25}\left(\dfrac{1}{4}\right),$ when tail tail comes, entire process gets repeated, so next time probability of $Y$ to happen is ${0.25}\times {0.25}\left(\dfrac{1}{4}\times \dfrac{1}{4}\right),$ likewise it goes on as infinite GP

Sum of infinite GP $= \dfrac{a}{(1-r)}$

here, $a= \dfrac{1}{4}$ and $r =\dfrac {1}{4}$

so answer becomes $\dfrac{1}{3}$ i.e ${0.33}$

Comments

@swami_9 Are you really dumb or just acting like one?

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@JAINchiNMay First time it is $1/4$, 2^nd time it is $1/4*1/4$ and so on. Sir has just written $0.25 = 1/4$.

That’s why $a= 1/4 \ and  \ r= 1/4$

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ohh my bad thanks

Answer 2

Answer should be 0.33

$P(TH)=\dfrac{1}{4}$

$P(HH + HT)=\dfrac{1}{2}$

now if $TT$ comes then toss again,

So, $P(TTTH)=\dfrac{1}{16} $ and so on.... $P(TH+TTTH+\ldots) = \dfrac{1}{4} + \dfrac{1}{16}+\ldots= \dfrac{1}{3}$

Answer 3

P(getting the output Y) = P(TH) +P(TTTH) + P(TTTTTH) + P(TTTTTTTH) +  P(TTTTTTTTTH)+  P(TTTTTTTTTTTH)...........

 P(getting the output Y) = 1/4 + 1/4² +1/4³ +1/4⁴ +1/4⁵ +1/4⁶+................ = (1/4) / ( 1- 1/4) =1/3

The correct answer is 0.33 .

Comments

I also applied the same approach... Easy to understand.

Answer 4

You can correct me if I am wrong.

Comments

bro you adding p(TH) case in the first if we get (TH) we simply stop as mentioned in question the how its possible please explain if am wroong