in Set Theory & Algebra
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Let $R_1$ and $R_2$ be two equivalence relations on a set. Consider the following assertions:

  1. $R_1 \cup R_2$ is an equivalence relation
  2. $R_1 \cap R_2$ is an equivalence relation

Which of the following is correct?

  1. Both assertions are true
  2. Assertions (i) is true but assertions (ii) is not true
  3. Assertions (ii) is true but assertions (i) is not true
  4. Neither (i) nor (ii) is true
in Set Theory & Algebra
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4 Comments

Question no 4 in this link

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Question : 

Let R1 and R2 be two equivalence relations on a set. Consider the following assertions:
i. R 1 ∪ R 2 is an equivalence relation
ii. R 1 ∩ R 2 is an equivalence relation

 It means they can’t be null because in the worst case it is satisfying reflexive.

E.g; If R contains {a,b,c} then R1 and R2 both contains at least {(a,a),(b,b),(c,c)}.  So it is symmetric and transitive too, consequently an equivalence relation.

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R1 U R2 is reflexive and symmetric but may not be transitive. We can prove it-- suppose (a,b)∈R1 U R2

then (a,b)∈R1 or (a,b)∈R2.

Similarly suppose (b,c)∈R1 U R2

then (b,c)∈R1 or (b,c)∈R2.

So it is possible that (a,b)∈R1 and (b,c)∈R2.

So a and c are not related and (a,c) does not belongs to R1 U R2 . So it is not transitive.

Similarly we can prove that R1∩R2 is an equivalence relation
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3 Answers

33 votes
33 votes
Best answer
Answer: $C$

$R_1$ intersection $R_2$ is equivalence relation..
$R_1$ union $R_2$ is not equivalence relation because transitivity needn't hold. For example, $(a, b)$ can be in $R_1$ and $(b, c)$ be in $R_2$ and $(a, c)$ not in either $R_1$ or $R_2.$
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4 Comments

yes if there is empty set  then also it follows transitive same in case of symmetry
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But empty set does not satisfy reflexive property
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But empty set does not satisfy reflexive property only satisfy transitive and symmetric
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16 votes
16 votes

$R1$ and $R2$ both are equivalence relation so $R1∩R2$ is also an equivalence relation because $\cap$ include only those pairs which are in both $R1$ and $ R2$.
Assertions (ii) is true 

$R1∪R2$ is NOT an equivalence relation 
see counter example over $(a,b)$ : 
$R1=\{(a,a),(b,b),(a,b),(b,a)\}$ is equivalence relation
$R2=\{(a,a),(b,b),(c,b),(b,c)\}$ is equivalence relation
$R1∪R2=\{(a,a),(b,b),(a,b),(b,a),(c,b),(b,c)\}$ is NOT equivalence relation because transitive pair $(a,c)$ isn't include in it .
assertions (i) is not true

Ans is C
 

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3 Comments

when R2 is defined over (a,b) how have you taken c ?
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Let relation is defined on set s={a,b,c}

Let R1={(a,a),(b,b),(c,c),(a,b),(b,a)}

And let. R2={(a,a),(b,b),(c,c),(b,c),(c,b)}

Here both are equivalence relation

But R1UR2={(a,a),(b,b),(c,c),(a,b),(b,a),(b,c),(c,a)}

Now here it can be seen that (a,c) is not pre sent in R1UR2 as it should be to make it transitive since (a,b) and (b,c) is present.
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R2 must have (c,c) to be equivalence relation
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