in Calculus edited by
13,662 views
43 votes
43 votes

Let the function

$$f(\theta) = \begin{vmatrix} \sin\theta & \cos\theta & \tan\theta  \\ \sin(\frac{\pi}{6}) & \cos(\frac{\pi}{6}) & \tan(\frac{\pi}{6}) & \\ \sin(\frac{\pi}{3}) & \cos(\frac{\pi}{3}) & \tan(\frac{\pi}{3})   \end{vmatrix} $$

where 

$\theta \in \left[ \frac{\pi}{6},\frac{\pi}{3} \right]$ and $f'(\theta)$     denote the derivative of $f$ with respect to $\theta$. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

  1. There exists $\theta \in (\frac{\pi}{6},\frac{\pi}{3})$ such that $f'(\theta) = 0$
  2. There exists $\theta \in (\frac{\pi}{6},\frac{\pi}{3})$ such that $f'(\theta)\neq  0$
  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II
in Calculus edited by
13.7k views

4 Comments

Thanks. @Sambhrant Maurya understood :) 

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In both the options we are provided with open interval..so how can someone put the value π/6,π/3 in place of theta in the determinant?

So option 2 is only satisfying..!

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Since the previous link posted by @vikas is not working . I have posted a new link for finding derivative of determinant. 

Learn Derivative of Determinant in 3 minutes. (toppr.com)

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4 Answers

54 votes
54 votes
Best answer

We need to solve this by Rolle's theorem. To apply Rolle's theorem following $3$ conditions should be satisfied:

  1. $f(x)$ should be continuous in interval $[a, b],$
  2. $f(x)$ should be differentiable in interval $(a, b),$ and
  3. $f(a) = f(b)$

If these $3$ conditions are satisfied simultaneously then, there exists at least one $'x'$ such that $f '(x) = 0$

For the given question, it satisfies all the three conditions, so we can apply Rolle's theorem, i.e, there exists at least one $\theta$ that gives $f '(\theta) = 0$

Also, the given function is also not a constant function, i.e., for some $\theta,$ $f '(\theta) ≠ 0$

So, answer is C.
 

selected by

18 Comments

how can you say that f(x) is continous and differentiable??

secondly,how did you prove the second stateentt as true i.e f'(theta) !=0

plss explain
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"In that given interval" it is continuous as well as differentiable. You should read the definitions of continuity and differentiabilty and check whether it satisfies those properties in that interval.

Also, above function is not constant, it depends on theta, there must be definitely "some theta" where it is not equal to zero. If it would have been constant, then it's derivative i.e. F'(theta) will always be zero.
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i am not able to prove how it is continue and differentiable..can u pls help??not good in continuity and differentiabilty
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some pls explain how it is continuous and differentiable.. here
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@ Akriti,

Trignometric functions are differentiable in their domain also if function is differentiable then it is continuos for sure.

Hope it helps.
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you mean sinx ,cos x,tanx will be differantiable at any value??
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For this question in this range it is continious and differentiable too
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@Akriti simple wy to check them is by vissualizing there graph in the specific domain.
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Sorry, the question may sound dumb, but how to do differentiation of a determinant? Please explain the solution in more detail
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just substitute the value of theta as pi/6 in the function .You will get determinant to be zero .

Similarly for the value pi/3 determinant is zero
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nice explanation saurabh sharma
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Can you elaborate second point.i am not able to get it.
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@Aashish Lakhchaura but π/6 is not in the given range. The question asks for f'(theta) = 0 for (π/6,π/3) and not for [π/6,π/3]​​

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edited by
$f(\theta)$ turns out to be this

$sin(\theta)\begin{vmatrix} \frac{\sqrt 3}{2} & \frac{1}{\sqrt 3} \\ \frac{1}{2}&\sqrt 3 \end{vmatrix}-cos(\theta)\begin{vmatrix} \frac{1}{2} &\frac{1}{\sqrt 3} \\ \frac{\sqrt 3}{2} &\sqrt 3 \end{vmatrix}+tan(\theta)\begin{vmatrix} \frac{1}{2} &\frac{\sqrt 3}{2} \\ \frac{\sqrt 3}{2} &\frac{1}{2} \end{vmatrix}$

Now, i can rewrite the above equation as

$f(\theta)=asin(\theta)-bcos(\theta)+ctan(\theta)$

for some non-zero constants $a,b,c$

$f'(\theta)=acos(\theta)+bsin(\theta)+csec^2(\theta)$

now at $\theta=\frac{\pi}{4} \in (\frac{\pi}{6},\frac{\pi}{3})$, $f'(\theta)\neq0$

So, II clause is true.

Please let me know if somewhere my this claim for II is incorrect.
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@Ayush Upadhyaya

why you mod value took constant a,b,c ...is it not affect on ans?

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There is small typo at 8 line from bottom
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@VIDYADHAR SHELKE 1-It's not Mod.It's determinant.

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@Aashish Lakhchaura

In both the options we are provided with open interval..so how can someone put the value π/6,π/3 in place of theta in the determinant?

So option 2 is only satisfying..!

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42 votes
42 votes

Solution:

4 Comments

Show me one such point where f’($\theta$) is 0
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there is some calculation mistake in  while calculating the determinant.
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good explaination
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3 votes
3 votes

Here is the graph of f'(x).

2 Comments

Its f(X)= 1.21 *sinX - 0.366 cosX + 0.5 tanX (If f(X) is determinant as shown in ques. )

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can we put directly f(a)=pi/6 and f(b)=pi/3 in given function

by solving this f(a)=f(b) (which is zero)

by this it is proved that given function is continuous as well as differentiable (Rolle's Theorem)

but why ii point is also true ?
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2 votes
2 votes

One major reason of confusion here is that people are differentiating the determinant in a wrong manner. The differentiation of a determinant is done in the following manner:

  1. Select a Row
  2. Differentiate that Row keeping others constant

 

$\frac{d}{dt}\begin{vmatrix} a_{11}(t) & a_{12}(t) & a_{13}(t) \\ a_{21}(t) & a_{22}(t) & a_{23}(t) \\ a_{31}(t) & a_{32}(t) & a_{33}(t) \end{vmatrix}=\begin{vmatrix} a'_{11}(t) & a'_{12}(t) & a'_{13}(t) \\ a_{21}(t) & a_{22}(t) & a_{23}(t) \\ a_{31}(t) & a_{32}(t) & a_{33}(t) \end{vmatrix}+\begin{vmatrix} a_{11}(t) & a_{12}(t) & a_{13}(t) \\ a'_{21}(t) & a'_{22}(t) & a'_{23}(t) \\ a_{31}(t) & a_{32}(t) & a_{33}(t) \end{vmatrix}+\begin{vmatrix} a_{11}(t) & a_{12}(t) & a_{13}(t) \\ a_{21}(t) & a_{22}(t) & a_{23}(t) \\ a'_{31}(t) & a'_{32}(t) & a'_{33}(t) \end{vmatrix}.$

So the differentiation of

$f(\theta) = \begin{vmatrix} sin(\theta) & cos(\theta) & tan(\theta)\\ sin(\frac{\pi}{6}) & cos(\frac{\pi}{6}) & tan(\frac{\pi}{6})\\ sin(\frac{\pi}{3}) & cos(\frac{\pi}{3}) & tan(\frac{\pi}{3})\\ \end{vmatrix}$

represented as $f’(\theta)$ would not have 2 rows zero and would not zero out.

1 comment

Very good question. Checks many concepts.
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Answer:

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