in Mathematical Logic
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Is this TRUE?

(∃!x)(∃!y)J(x,y)≡(∃!y)(∃!x)J(x,y)

in Mathematical Logic
289 views

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yes true

$\sim \left ( \forall x \right )\wedge \sim \left ( \forall y \right )J\left ( x,y \right )=\sim \left ( \forall y \right )\wedge \sim \left ( \forall x \right )J\left ( x,y \right )$

$\left ( \forall x \right )\wedge \left ( \forall y \right )J\left ( x,y \right )= \left ( \forall y \right )\wedge \left ( \forall x \right )J\left ( x,y \right )$
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