in Calculus recategorized by
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1 vote
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$\underset{x \to \infty}{\lim} \left( 1 + \dfrac{1}{x^2} \right) ^x$ equals

  1. $-1$
  2. $0$
  3. $1$
  4. Does not exist
in Calculus recategorized by
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Is answer $1$??
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1 Answer

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Taking the log on both the sides.

2 Comments

If $\mathrm x = 1$?
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if we substitute x as 1/y;then as x tends to infinity y will tend to 0. I hope it’s clear.
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