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Which one of the following  well-formed formulae is a tautology?
 

  1. $\forall x \, \exists y \, R(x,y) \, \leftrightarrow \, \exists y \, \forall x \, R(x, y)$
  2. $( \forall x \, [\exists y \, R(x,y) \, \rightarrow \, S(x, y)]) \, \rightarrow \, \forall x \, \exists y \, S(x, y)$
  3. $[ \forall x \, \exists y \, \left( P(x,y) \, \rightarrow \, R(x, y) \right)] \, \leftrightarrow [ \forall x \, \exists y \left(\neg P(x, y) \, \lor R(x, y) \right)]$
  4. $\forall x \, \forall y \, P(x,y) \, \rightarrow \, \forall x \, \forall y \, P(y, x)$
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Ignoring the variables, $(R \rightarrow S) \rightarrow S$ cannot be a tautology.

So, even if we use quantifiers and variables, it cannot be a tautology.
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edited by
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@strawberry-jam I too believe that cause (R->S) -> S

LHS can be ~R + S ->S 

if R = False and S = False

then ~R +S will be True  → S will be false.

 

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5 Answers

67 votes
67 votes
Best answer

NOTE: “Tautology" & “Valid" are Different Concepts in First Order Logic. Tautology & Valid are Same Concepts in Propositional Logic.

Watch the following Detailed Lecture on  “Tautology Vs Valid” in First Order Logic:

$\color{red}{\text{Tautology Vs Valid in First Order Logic:}}$ "Tautology" in Predicate Logic(Click Here)

Note 1 :

When no information is given about Domain of variables for a First Order Logic (FOL) formula, then consider that domain for all variables in the given FOL formula is same. Unless otherwise explicitly stated, domain should be taken same for all variables of a given FOL formula.

Note 2 :

For propositional logic(PL) / Sentential logic, “Tautology” of an expression means same thing as “Validity” of that expression. But this is Not true in FOL.


Tautology/Validity in Propositional Logic :

Tautologies are a key concept in propositional logic, where a tautology is defined as a propositional formula that is true under any possible Boolean valuation of its propositional variables.

Given propositional logic expression (PLE) $G$ is said to be Valid or Tautology iff $G$ is ALWAYS True, regardless of which valuation is used for the propositional variables. 

Some examples of Tautologies in PL :

$A \vee \neg A$

$(A \vee B) \rightarrow (A \vee B)$

$(A \rightarrow B) \rightarrow (\neg B \rightarrow \neg A) $

In propositional logic, there is no distinction between a tautology and a logically valid formula. So, 

In Propositional logic $: \text{Valid} \equiv \text{Tautology} \equiv \text{True}$


Tautology/Validity in First Order Logic(FOL) :

From Wikipedia :

The definition of tautology can be extended to sentences in predicate logic, which may contain quantifiers—a feature absent from sentences of propositional logic. Indeed, in propositional logic, there is no distinction between a tautology and a logically valid formula. In the context of predicate logic, many authors define a tautology to be a sentence that can be obtained by taking a tautology of propositional logic, and uniformly replacing each propositional variable by a first-order formula (one formula per propositional variable). The set of such formulas is a proper subset of the set of logically valid sentences of predicate logic (i.e., sentences that are true in every model).

The fundamental definition of a tautology is in the context of propositional logic. The definition can be extended, however, to sentences in first-order logic. These sentences may contain quantifiers, unlike sentences of propositional logic. In the context of first-order logic, a distinction is maintained between logical validities, sentences that are true in every model, and tautologies, which are a proper subset of the first-order logical validities. In the context of propositional logic, these two terms coincide.

A tautology in first-order logic is a sentence that can be obtained by taking a tautology of propositional logic and uniformly replacing each propositional variable by a first-order formula (one formula per propositional variable). (Note that Propositional logic manipulations can be done on the given formula, but No FOL manipulation should be done.)

For example, because $A \vee \neg A$ is a tautology of propositional logic,  $( \forall x (x=x)  ) \vee  \neg ( \forall x (x=x)  ) $ is a tautology in first order logic. 

Example $2 :$

$[(\forall y \neg Py \rightarrow \neg Px) \rightarrow (Px \rightarrow \neg \forall y \neg Py)]$ is a FOL Tautology.

because it can be obtained from a contraposition tautology  $(A \rightarrow \neg B) \rightarrow (B \rightarrow \neg A) $ by replacing $A$ by $\forall y \neg Py$ and $B$ by $Px$.

Example $3 :$

$ \forall x \forall y P(x,y) \rightarrow \forall x \forall y P(x,y) $ is a FOL tautology because it can be obtained from a PL Tautology $A \rightarrow A $ by replacing $A$ with $\forall x \forall y P(x,y).$

Not all logical validities are tautologies in first-order logic.

For example, the sentence $ {\displaystyle (\forall xRx)\to \lnot \exists x\lnot Rx} $
is true/valid in any first-order interpretation BUT it is Not a FOL Tautology, because it corresponds to the propositional sentence ${\displaystyle A\to B} $  which is not a tautology of propositional logic.

Example $2 :$

$\forall x(Px \rightarrow Px)$  is NOT a FOL Tautology because it corresponds to the propositional sentence $A$  which is not a tautology of propositional logic. Note that $\forall x(Px \rightarrow Px)$ is FOL Valid formula But Not Tautology.

Example $3 :$

$ (\forall x Px) \rightarrow Pc $   is NOT a FOL Tautology because it corresponds to the propositional sentence $A \rightarrow B$ (By replacing $ (\forall x Px)$ with $A$ and $Pc$ with $B$)  which is not a tautology of propositional logic. NOTE that $ (\forall x Px) \rightarrow Pc $ is FOL Valid formula But Not Tautology.

Example $4:$

The following is an example of a logical truth that is not a tautology:  $ \exists x \text{Cube}(x) \vee \exists x \neg \text{Cube}(x) $. Because the validity of the argument depends on the meaning of the existential quantifier $\exists $ , and not just on the meaning of the connective $\vee$.

A sentence containing quantifiers that is a tautology is this: $ \forall x \text{Cube}(x) \vee \neg \forall x \text{Cube}(x) $ which is just an instance of the tautologous form $ A \vee \neg A $.

So that's that. 

NOTE : Every FOL Tautology is FOL validity BUT Not vice versa.

So, If a given FOL formula is Not valid, then it is Not a FOL Tautology. 


Now coming back to the given question :

Option A :

Option A is NOT at all valid in FOL. 

$ \forall x \exists yR(x,y) \leftarrow  \exists y \forall xR(x,y) $ is FOL Validity. But it is Not FOL Tautology.

$ \forall x \exists y R(x,y) \rightarrow   \exists y \forall x R(x,y) $ is NOT FOL Validity. So, it is Not FOL Tautology as well.

Option B :

$ (\forall x[ \exists yR(x,y)\rightarrow S(x,y)])\rightarrow \forall x  \exists y S(x,y) $ is NOT at all valid. 

For example, Let $A$ be a set $\{a,b \}$ and let relation $R$ on $A$ be $  \{ (a,a) \}$  and let relation $S$ on $A$ be $  \{ (a,a) \}$  then clearly  $\forall x \exists y S(x,y) $ is false. Also $ (\forall x[ \exists y R(x,y)\rightarrow S(x,y)]) $ is true. So, we can say that option B is NOT Valid. So, it is Not a Tautology.

Option C :

$ [\forall x \exists y(P(x,y)\rightarrow R(x,y))]\leftrightarrow [\forall x \exists  y(\neg P(x,y)\vee R(x,y))] $  is a FOL Tautology. 

Note that we can do Propositional logic manipulations, so, $A \rightarrow B $ can be written $A' \vee B.$

So, 

$ [\forall x \exists y(P(x,y)\rightarrow R(x,y))] \leftrightarrow [\forall x  \exists y(\neg P(x,y)\vee R(x,y))] $ is same as $ [\forall x \exists y( \neg P(x,y) \vee R(x,y))]\leftrightarrow[\forall x  \exists y(\neg P(x,y)\vee R(x,y))] $

under only propositional logic manipulation.  

Now, we can take $A = [\forall x \exists y( \neg P(x,y) \vee  R(x,y))]$ and so $A  \leftrightarrow A$ is tautology in PL.

Option D :

$ \forall x \forall yP(x,y) \rightarrow  \forall x \forall y P(y,x)$ is FOL Valid But Not FOL Tautology. NOTE that if we replace $\forall x  \forall y P(x,y)$ by $A$ then  $ \forall x  \forall y P(y,x)$ is some B. But $A \rightarrow B$ is Not tautology in PL. 

References :

Page number $115$ in the below book :

Watch the following Detailed Lecture on  “Tautology Vs Valid” in First Order Logic:

$\color{red}{\text{Tautology Vs Valid in First Order Logic:}}$ "Tautology" in Predicate Logic (Click HERE)

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21 Comments

edited by

In not all logical validities are tautologies in first-order logic example 2 why ∀x(Px→Px)  corresponds to A and not A->A ? And if  ∀x(Px→Px)  corresponds to A then in example 2 ∀x[(∀y¬Py→¬Px)→(Px→¬∀y¬Py)] should also correspond to A because of the universal quantifier.

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Informally, a FOL is said to be Tautology if you can determine its truth value JUST BY Knowledge of Tautology of Propositional Logic. Means, the truth value determination should NOT depend on definition of Quantifiers, Predicates etc.

In Example 2, ∀x(Px→Px) : If you take P(x) = A then it becomes ∀x(A → A) which again is NOT a tautology in propostional logic. You need to remove ∀x as well, So, Now if you assume ∀x(A → A) as B then this B is Not tautology in Propositional Logic.
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Then in example 2 under topic Tautology/Validity in First Order Logic(FOL) :

Example 2: ∀x[(∀y¬Py→¬Px)→(Px→¬∀y¬Py)]  is a FOL Tautology because it can be obtained from a contraposition tautology  (A→¬B)→(B→¬A) by replacing A by ∀y¬Py and B by Px.

Here also corresponding Propositonal Logic statement should be ∀x[(A→¬B)→(B→¬A)] not (A→¬B)→(B→¬A).

Please correct me if I am wrong.

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That  $”\forall x”$ was put by mistake, shouldn’t have been there. i have corrected it.
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Ok sir. Thanks.
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why 

 

the sentence $(∀xRx) → ¬∃x¬Rx$

is not Tautology in FOL ? 

it’s like $A →  ¬ (¬A )$ which is tautology in PL.

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So, what you have shown is that

(∀xRx)→¬∃x¬Rx

is FOL Valid.

NOTE that

(∀xRx)→¬∃x¬Rx

is NOT FOL tautology because we need the knowledge of “Negation of quantifiers” to say that it is True.

Also, in (∀xRx)→¬∃x¬Rx,  if we replace (∀xRx) by $A$ and ∃x¬Rx by $B$ then we get $A \rightarrow \neg B,$ which is NOT tautology in Propositional logic.

That’s what I have explained in the whole answer in detail. Go though it, and also refer the links shared.
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edited by

@Deepak Poonia sir I have a doubt about option B.

Also (∀x[∃yR(x,y)→S(x,y)]) is true

           Sir why this is true?

            Let A be a set {a,b} and let relation R on A be {(a,a)}  and let relation S on A be {(a,a)}

  → when x=a then there exist y (y=a) such that R(a,a) is true and S(a,a) is also true. So this implication       (∃yR(x,y)→S(x,y) is true.

  → when x=b then there does not exist y  such that R(b,y) is true. So ∃yR(x,y) is false. So false → anything is true. So, this implication (∃yR(x,y)→S(x,y) is true.

So, we can say that ∀x[∃yR(x,y)→S(x,y)] is true.

       

Let A be a set {a,b} and let relation R on A be {(a,a)}  and let relation S on A be {(a,b)}

          when x=a then there exist y (y=a) such that R(a,a) is true but S(a,a) is false. So this implication       (∃yR(x,y)→S(x,y) is false.

         Or am i wrong...sir plz tell?

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@samarpita You are correct.

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@samarpita one doubt;
(∀x[∃yR(x,y)→S(x,y)])  -→  ∀x∃y S(x,y) can be written as (∀x[∃yR(x,y)→S(x,y)])  -→  ∀i∃j S(i,j) ; where domain for all variables is same.

 

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@Alekhyo Banerjee yes we can.

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reshown by

what does this mean (∀xPx)→Pc ??

what is Pc here and how it is valid ?
@Deepak Poonia  @Abhrajyoti00 @samarpita 

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Sir , I can't understand option D why you have written it is FOL valid . If we assume P(x,y) as x divides y then both p(x,y) and P(y,x) are different
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edited by

what does this mean (∀xPx)→Pc ??

what is Pc here and how it is valid ?

@JAINchiNMay

“c” is some constant symbol, from the domain.

$(∀xPx)→Pc$ is valid, and it is called “universal instantiation”. 


Sir , I can't understand option D why you have written it is FOL valid . If we assume P(x,y) as x divides y then both p(x,y) and P(y,x) are different 

@GNANESWARA SAI

If we take $P(m,n)$ as “$m$ divides $n$” then:

$P(x,y)$ becomes “$x$ divides $y$” and

$P(y,x)$ becomes “$y$ divides $x$”.

Basically, the first argument of $P$ divides the second argument of $P.$

Since, by default, the domain is same for all the variables in an FOL expression, hence, Option D is valid.

In Option D, LHS interpret as “for all pairs $(a,b)$ $a$ divides $b$"; & RHS interpret as “for all pairs $(b,a)$ $b$ divides $a$";

Since the domain is same, with a little bit of thought you will know that both LHS & RHS mean the same thing.

Watch the following Detailed Lecture on  “Tautology Vs Valid” in First Order Logic:

$\color{red}{\text{Tautology Vs Valid in First Order Logic:}}$ "Tautology" in Predicate Logic(Click Here) 

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Thank you sir , missed that
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here meaning of the logical statement is that if every value of x is related to every value of the y such that x divides y is  is true then every value of y is related to every value of x such that y divides x is true.

ex. suppose that  domain of x and y are same and that is { a , b }

then p(x,y) means   

a divides a    AND

a divides b    AND

b divides a   AND

b divides b   

so it also implies p(y,x).

 

but we will never find a domain more than 1 element such that x divides y is true for all x for all y p(x,y) is true.

Now suppose we took domain as {1,2}. Then here 1 divides 2 is false. Then automatically L.H.S  of implication will be false then no matter R.H.S is true or false , statement will always true.

But if we take domain of only one element like {2} or {7} or  R-{0} then logical statement  will be true cause every element is divisible by itself. 

I hope you understood by this explanation.

   

 

 

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@Deepak Poonia

sir won’t option B have a free variable ?

$(\forall x[\exists yR(x,y)\rightarrow S(x,\color{red}y \color{white})]) \rightarrow \forall x\exists yS(x,y)$

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@rhl It is advisable to put proper parenthesis, but we generally miss it while writing an expression. 

It has happened multiple times in GATE exam. Like in This GATE Question

I suggest “reading the question maker’s mind” & interpret the expression. Question maker might be having a different conventon of writing FOL expression. 

For example, consider the expression $\forall x (A(x) \rightarrow B(x))$.

Some authors can write it $\forall x, A(x) \rightarrow B(x)$, Some can wrie it $\forall x \,\, A(x) \rightarrow B(x).$

I suggest that the options, & what has been asked in the question etc can help you interpret the Question Maker’s Mind.  

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@Deepak Poonia

In option D,

$(\forall x \forall y P(x,y) → \forall x \forall y P(y,x)) ↔ (\forall x \forall y P(x,y) → \forall y \forall x P(y,x)) ↔ (\forall x \forall y P(x,y) → \forall x \forall y P(x,y))$ which turns out to be tautology. Since, quantifiers of the same type are commutative and renaming a variable appropriately won't change the statement.

 

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@Suraj Reddy, See THIS example, it is a Valid expression in FOL, but not tautology.

“Tautology” is a Concept of Propositional Logic, which is only extended to FOL. See THIS.

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@Deepak Poonia 

Sir, In option B in LHS the scope of “There Exists y” should be over R(x,y)  only .
The y present in S(x,y) is bounded by which quantifier?? 

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72 votes
72 votes

A) lets take R(x,y) means x is divisible by y.
X= {6,8,9}
Y={2,3}

For all x, there exists any y such that x is divisible by y.   It is true in our example. 
but here take y individually, no single y is capable of dividing all x.  So it neither implies nor double implies the second one.
So FALSE.

B)  lets take ...
R(x,y)  means  x is divisible by y ,   
S(x,y) means  means   x/y =2 or 3
X={4,6,11}  Y={2,3}
(∀x[∃yR(x,y)→S(x,y)])→∀x∃yS(x,y)

(Always, make the LHS intentionally true, If we can make RHS false, then it is not tautology)

Here for all X, there exists a y such that ..."if x is divisible by y then x/y=2 or 3".... 11 is not divisible by any y...so no problem.
So LHS is true.
Go to RHS.   For all x, there exists a y such that x/y=2 or 3. Which is false. 11/2 and 11/3 are neither 2 nor 3
Here  T-> F  so False. Not tautology.

 D) 
X= 8,12,16
Y= 2,4
For all X and for all Y, Y divides X.......  It does not imply X divides Y.  So FALSE.



We are only left with option C.  So it is the ans. The method I follow is to disprove it. Not to prove it. So here also you can try something by taking any example. You cant disprove it. C is the ans.

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4 Comments

Any other approach to solve option B

taking this type of counter-example in exam hall is difficult.
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Very nicely explained!
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nice explanation👍
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45 votes
45 votes

Ans (C).

$\left(P \rightarrow Q\right) \leftrightarrow \left(\neg P \vee Q\right)$

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4 Comments

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can you explain a littlle more? how is this a tautology?
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I would immediately mark D and become eligible for a negative mark :(
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0 votes
0 votes

option a :   lhs side means  “for all x there is a y which satisfy r(x,y)”.  and rhs means ”there is a particular y for every x”.  as bi directional implication given this means both LHS and RHS should be equivalent which is false. hence option a is wrong

option b and option d are just random thoughts written in fol .

option c : as we KNOW ,   P(X,Y) →R(X,Y)  ==  ~P(X,Y)  + R(X,Y)  both these are interchangeable and equivalent so option c is right

hence ans c  not so deep explanation  ..but enough for breaking this question and similar ones .this is the way i got ans

 

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