in Mathematical Logic retagged by
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in Mathematical Logic retagged by
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@santhoshdevulapally

In above statement if everyone is not a politician then B converts to false→∃xQ(x) which is true but above statement yields false.

How is it right??

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instead of taking statement derive using predicates.

otherwise take p(1)= F and p(2)=T. & Q(1)=T and Q(2)=F.

$\forall xP(x)=p(1)\wedge p(2)

   \exists xP(x)=p(1)\vee p(2)$.

apply for p->q and q->p then u get p=q.
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