1 votes 1 votes Its answer is a) but here more(x,y) is given means it should be like this -- x is more than y then isn't a) is wrong Mathematical Logic zeal mathematical-logic first-order-logic zeal-workbook + – Prince Sindhiya asked Nov 9, 2018 • edited Mar 9, 2019 by ajaysoni1924 Prince Sindhiya 555 views answer comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments See all 2 2 Comments reply Deepak Poonia commented Nov 10, 2018 reply Follow Share That would depend on How $More(a,b)$ is defined. If the answer is given $a$ then surely $More(a,b)$ is defined as following : $More(a,b)$ : $class\,\,a$ has more students than $class \,\,b$. 3 votes 3 votes Prince Sindhiya commented Nov 11, 2018 reply Follow Share ok please clear me one more thing how to know that more(x,y) will come after $\sim$interesting(y) bcz we can write it as ∀x∀y((interesting(x)$\wedge$$\sim$more(x,y) $\implies$interesting(y)) how to read it? 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.