3 votes 3 votes If X and Y are two sets, then X⋂(Y⋃X) C equals (a) X (b) Y (c) ϕ (d) None of these My attempt: X = {1,2,3} Y = {3,4,5} (Y⋃X) = {1,2,3,4,5} X⋂(Y⋃X) = {1,2,3} But the given answer is C Set Theory & Algebra set-theory&algebra set-theory + – Prasanna asked Nov 27, 2015 • retagged Jul 10, 2016 by LeenSharma Prasanna 12.6k views answer comment Share Follow See all 5 Comments See all 5 5 Comments reply Show 2 previous comments Praveen Saini commented Nov 27, 2015 reply Follow Share @Prasanna Here X$\cap$(Y$\cup$ X) C means ${(X\cap(Y\cup X))}'$ or it means X$\cap$${(Y\cup X)}'$ 1 votes 1 votes Prasanna commented Nov 27, 2015 reply Follow Share Thanks Sir. I didn't see that C as "Complement" 0 votes 0 votes akash.dinkar12 commented Jul 25, 2018 reply Follow Share see this... 1 votes 1 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
Best answer 3 votes 3 votes X ⋂ (Y ⋃ X)' = X ⋂ (Y' ⋂ X') = ϕ Digvijay Pandey answered Nov 27, 2015 • selected Nov 27, 2015 by Prasanna Digvijay Pandey comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes just convert to boolean expression and solve by digital logix. like x . ( y+x)' = x.( y' . x') now x and x' = 0 so answer will be C Tendua answered Nov 27, 2015 Tendua comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.