Let there be a semigroup $(\text{G}, \ast)$ where $\text{G} = {p, q, r,s}$ such that $p \ast q = r ; q \ast q = p$ and $s \ast p = q.$ Then $s \ast r = ?$
we have to find r*s and not s*r. or it does not have any effect at all ?? I tried expanding r*s and got stuck. It would be helpful if can also show by expanding r*s.
@Deepak Poonia in question it is not stated G is abelian so we can’t used r*s=s*r
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