in Set Theory & Algebra
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if R1 is irreflexive and R2 is irreflexive  then can R1$\cup$ R2 be reflexive ? true or false
in Set Theory & Algebra
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2 Comments

Reflexive under what ??
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suppose any set take it a{1,2,3}
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2 Answers

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Best answer

FALSE.

If relations R1 and R2 are irreflexive, then the relations R1 U R2, R1 ⋂ R2, R1-1 are also Irreflexive.

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4 Comments

no matter all are not present na.. then it would be definitely irreflexive if in R1 one selfloop (3,3) will be present then it wonn't be irreflexive
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no... if even it contains a single self loop also it is not an irreflexive relation.... please take correct example... your approach is wrong.
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edited by
srry u r right , srry to make  u annoying  :(
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0 votes
0 votes
TRUE

let set A{1,2,3} then R1{(2,3),(1,2),} irreflexive , also R2{(2,1),(3,2)} is also irreflexive .

when, R1$\cup$R2 ={(2,1),(2,3),(1,2),(3,2)} is also irreflexive

so given statement is true
edited by

3 Comments

Yes. Union, Intersection and Inverse of an irreflexive relation does not contain any self loops. That's why it is always irreflexive.
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thanks alot
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thank you
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